This is the free Comptia N10-009 practice question bank —
290 of 580 total questions, each with a full explanation, free to
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Question 1
Which of the following should a network technician do to have remote, administrative redundancy if a switch becomes unresponsive through an SSH?
A. Deploy a jump host.
B. Use an out-of-band management solution.
C. Enable administrative GUI.
D. Connect a physical console cable.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If SSH access is unavailable because the switch is unresponsive through the production network, the standard way to maintain remote administrative access is an out-of-band (OOB) management solution. A physical console cable requires someone on-site and is not remote. A jump host still depends on the same in-band network path, and enabling a GUI does not provide redundancy if the device is unreachable.
Question 2
Which of the following should be implemented to ensure that only permitted external HTTPS endpoints are reachable from a sensitive company department subnet?
A. CDN
B. IPS
C. Proxy
D. Load balancer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A forward HTTPS proxy can enforce allowlists so that only permitted external HTTPS endpoints are reachable from a sensitive subnet. A CDN distributes content, an IPS detects/blocks malicious traffic but is not primarily used to restrict outbound destinations by allowlist, and a load balancer distributes traffic among servers.
Question 3
A laptop is experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. Given the following wireless network configuration:
Which of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?
A. Configure roaming between APs.
B. Modify saturation of the 10dBM transmit power on CompTIA_2.
C. Adjust the transmit power on CompTIA_3.
D. Move CompTIA_2 to channel 1.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In typical wireless design troubleshooting, intermittent connectivity caused by overlapping cells is resolved by adjusting the transmit power of the access point creating excessive overlap. Changing channels or enabling roaming is not the primary fix unless the diagram specifically indicates those issues. Adjusting the transmit power on CompTIA_3 is the best match.
Question 4
A network engineer needs to optimize network throughput for a high-performance computing cluster. Which of the following features provides the most efficiency per flow?
A. Link aggregation
B. Traffic shaping
C. QoS policing
D. Jumbo frames
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Jumbo frames increase the payload carried in each Ethernet frame, reducing per-packet header overhead, interrupt load, and CPU processing. For large data transfers common in high-performance computing clusters, this provides the greatest efficiency per flow. Link aggregation increases total bandwidth across multiple links but does not make an individual flow more efficient. Traffic shaping and QoS policing manage or limit traffic rather than improving throughput efficiency.
Question 5
Which of the following is an advantage of a spine-and-leaf architecture compared to a traditional three-tier model?
A. Ease of maintenance
B. Modular design
C. Consistent traffic flow
D. Minimal broadcast storms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A spine-and-leaf architecture provides predictable, consistent east-west traffic patterns because every leaf switch is the same number of hops from every other leaf through the spine layer. This delivers consistent latency and traffic flow compared with a traditional three-tier architecture. Modular design is not a distinguishing advantage over three-tier architectures, ease of maintenance is subjective, and minimizing broadcast storms is achieved through Layer 2 design rather than being an inherent spine-and-leaf advantage.
Sources:
https://acecomputers.com/html-sitemap
Question 6
A user's laptop is unable to connect to shared company resources. The following error is displayed:
IP address conflict detected.
Which of the following commands most efficiently allows a network administrator to troubleshoot the issue?
A. arp
B. nslookup
C. tcpdump
D. netstat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An IP address conflict is a Layer 2/ARP-related issue where two devices claim the same IPv4 address. The arp command allows an administrator to inspect and manage the ARP cache, helping identify conflicting MAC-to-IP mappings. nslookup troubleshoots DNS, tcpdump captures packets but is less efficient for this specific issue, and netstat displays network connections and ports rather than IP conflicts.
Question 7
Which of the following is a best practice when a hardware device reaches its EOL?
A. Purchasing an extended warranty and support
B. Decommissioning and replacing the device
C. Selling or donating the device
D. Using the device for testing and training
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A hardware device that has reached end of life (EOL) is no longer fully supported by the manufacturer, including security updates and parts availability. The recommended best practice is to decommission it from production and replace it with a supported device. Extended warranties are generally not available or do not restore full lifecycle support, selling or donating may transfer unsupported equipment, and retaining it for testing/training is not the primary best practice for production security.
Sources:
https://community.appspace.com/devices-198/appspace-device-end-of-life-eol-policy-and-lifecycle-1219
https://www.dbk.com/resources/product-reaches-eol
Question 8
A network technician wants to reduce switchport use. The technician connects the users' laptops through a VoIP phone. However, this change causes users to have issues printing and accessing different network resources. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. VLAN assignment
C. Address pool exhaustion
D. Duplicate IP addresses
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When a PC is connected through a VoIP phone, the switch port is commonly configured with both a data VLAN and a voice VLAN. If the data VLAN assignment is incorrect or missing, the laptop may end up on the wrong network, causing loss of access to printers and other network resources despite the phone connection working.
Sources:
https://dev.to/andrew_despres/comptia-network-n10-009-53-study-guide-routing-switching-and-ip-issues-28i6
Question 9
Which of the following types of routes takes precedence when building a routing table for a given subnet?
A. Static
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. Default
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For the same destination subnet, a static route has a lower administrative distance than OSPF or eBGP by default, so it is preferred. A default route is only used when no more specific route exists.
Question 10
A network engineer must configure core switches that:
• Efficiently handle high-bandwidth data transfers.
• Optimize resource consumption.
• Minimize fragmentation.
Which of the following should the engineer enable?
A. 802.1Q tagging
B. Link aggregation
C. Spanning tree
D. Jumbo frames
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Jumbo frames increase the maximum Ethernet frame size, reducing per-packet overhead, improving efficiency for high-bandwidth transfers, optimizing CPU/resource consumption, and minimizing fragmentation at the application payload level by carrying more data per frame. 802.1Q tagging provides VLAN tagging, link aggregation increases bandwidth/redundancy but does not address frame size or fragmentation, and spanning tree prevents Layer 2 loops.
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