A customer calls the help desk to report that resources are no longer reachable. The resources were available before network changes were made. The technician verifies the report, investigates, and discovers that a new logical layout is segmenting the network using tagging. Which of the following appliances most likely needs to be reviewed to restore the connections?
A. Access point
B. Firewall
C. Switch
D. Load balancer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Network segmentation using tagging refers to VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q), which is configured and enforced on switches. If recent network changes introduced VLANs or incorrect trunk/access port tagging, reviewing the switch configuration is the most likely way to restore connectivity. Firewalls can filter traffic between VLANs, but the question specifically points to logical segmentation using tagging.
Question 12
A company implements a new network utilizing only IPv6 addressing and needs to connect to the internet. Which of the following must be enabled in order for the internal network to contact servers on the internet?
A. MPLS
B. NAT64
C. GRE
D. Static routing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An IPv6-only internal network cannot directly communicate with IPv4-only Internet services. NAT64 provides translation between IPv6 clients and IPv4 destinations, enabling connectivity. MPLS and GRE are tunneling/transport technologies and do not perform IPv4/IPv6 translation, while static routing alone cannot bridge the protocol mismatch.
Question 13
Which of the following recovery strategies should a company implement to ensure data center services are quickly restored and accessible after a disaster occurs?
A. Backup and replication software
B. Active-passive approach
C. Cloud computing
D. Remote manual failover
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An active-passive disaster recovery architecture maintains a standby environment that can be brought online quickly after a disaster, restoring data center services with minimal downtime. Backup and replication protect data but do not by themselves ensure rapid service accessibility. Cloud computing is a deployment model, not inherently a recovery strategy, and remote manual failover is slower because it requires human intervention.
Sources:
https://futureitservices.au/news/data-recovery-best-practices
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/healthcare-apis/business-continuity-disaster-recovery
Question 14
After a hospital installs a new set of IoT devices that leverage the existing nurses' station's wireless network, nurses complain that the IoT devices are experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. A network engineer receives the following information:
Which of the following is most likely causing the performance issue?
A. Poor RSSI
B. Incorrect channel size
C. Frequency overlap
D. Roaming misconfiguration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Installing a new set of IoT devices on an existing wireless network can introduce RF interference and channel contention. Intermittent connectivity affecting the newly added IoT devices is most consistently explained by frequency/channel overlap with existing WLANs or nearby devices. Roaming misconfiguration primarily affects mobile clients moving between access points, while RSSI and channel width issues would typically require additional evidence.
Sources:
https://cciedump.spoto.net/exam-questions/n10-009-exam-questions-2024-updated-get-ready-for-exams
https://www.frontiersin.org/journals/medicine/articles/10.3389/fmed.2024.1471527/full
Question 15
A network engineer manages a guest wireless network in an airport with mostly transient users. There is a fixed pool of available IP addresses. Which of the following DHCP properties should the engineer configure to reduce the likelihood that this pool will be exhausted?
A. Exclusions
B. IP helper
C. Reservations
D. Lease time
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Configuring a shorter DHCP lease time allows IP addresses assigned to transient clients to be returned to the available pool more quickly after devices disconnect or leave the network. In an airport guest network with mostly short-lived users and a fixed address pool, this reduces the chance of exhausting available IP addresses. Exclusions remove addresses from the pool, reservations permanently bind addresses to specific devices, and an IP helper relays DHCP messages but does not affect address utilization.
Question 16
Which of the following types of connectors allows the transmission of network data through a coaxial cable?
A. SC
B. MPO
C. BNC
D. RJ11
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: BNC (Bayonet Neill–Concelman) connectors are designed for coaxial cable and were commonly used for Ethernet over coaxial networks. SC and MPO are fiber-optic connectors, and RJ11 is a telephone connector for twisted-pair wiring.
Question 17
Which of the following is an advantage of using an IDS over an IPS?
A. An IDS requires less processing power to analyze traffic.
B. An IDS is less disruptive during the initial deployment of the technology.
C. An IDS is easier to restrict access.
D. An IDS is more accurate due to fewer false positives.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An IDS monitors and alerts on suspicious activity without actively blocking traffic, making it less disruptive during initial deployment because it cannot accidentally interrupt legitimate traffic. An IPS sits inline and can block traffic, so incorrect detections can impact operations. The other options are not generally true: IDS does not inherently require less processing power, is not easier to restrict access, and is not inherently more accurate.
Question 18
An ongoing mail server migration is in progress. The current system does not use encrypted mail protocols, but the new system does. Which of the following ports can the administrator close to deny non-encrypted protocols without interrupting the migration?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 25
D. 443
E. 587
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SMTP on port 25 is the traditional unencrypted mail transfer port. During a migration to encrypted mail submission, clients can use port 587 (typically with STARTTLS/authentication). Closing port 25 for non-encrypted access denies the legacy protocol while allowing the encrypted submission service to continue during the migration.
Question 19
As part of a recovery strategy, a network administrator needs to make sure no more than eight hours of data loss occurs. Which of the following DR metrics describes this requirement?
A. RPO
B. MTTR
C. RTO
D. MTBF
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. A requirement of no more than eight hours of data loss corresponds to an RPO of eight hours. RTO is the maximum acceptable downtime, MTTR is mean time to repair, and MTBF is mean time between failures.
Question 20
A device is experiencing disconnection from the wireless network. A network support engineer needs to find the root cause of the issue. Which of the following should the engineer use to isolate the device on a packet capture?
A. ESSID
B. MAC
C. PSK
D. BSSID
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To isolate a specific client device in a packet capture, the engineer should filter on the device's MAC address. An ESSID identifies the wireless network, a BSSID identifies the access point's radio, and a PSK is the shared authentication key. The MAC address uniquely identifies the client device at Layer 2, making it the appropriate filter for isolating that device's traffic.
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