Which of the following do developers use to keep track of changes made during software development projects?
A. Code drifting
B. Code control
C. Code testing
D. Code versioning
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Developers use code versioning (version control) to track and manage changes to source code over time, enabling collaboration, history tracking, and rollback to previous versions.
Question 11
A cloud architect attempts to modify a protected branch but is unable to do so. The architect receives an error indicating the action cannot be completed. Which of the following should the architect try instead?
A. Adding a new remote
B. Creating a pull request
C. Merging the branch
D. Rebasing the branch
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Protected branches disallow direct modifications such as pushing commits or force changes. The standard workflow is to create a pull request so changes can be reviewed and merged according to the branch protection rules.
Question 12
For compliance purposes, a cloud developer at an insurance company needs to save all customer policies for more than ten years. Which of the following options is the most cost-efficient tier to save the data in the cloud?
A. Archive
B. Hot
C. Cold
D. Warm
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For long-term compliance retention (10+ years) where data is rarely accessed, the Archive storage tier is the most cost-efficient option. Archive tiers are designed for infrequent access with the lowest storage costs, which suits regulatory retention of insurance policies. Hot, Warm, and Cold tiers have higher storage costs and are intended for more frequent access patterns.
Question 12
A company runs a discussion forum that caters to global users. The company’s monitoring system reports that the home page suddenly is seeing elevated response times, even though internal monitoring has reported no issues or changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Cryptojacking
B. Human error
C. DDos
D. Phishing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A sudden increase in response times affecting global users while internal systems show no faults strongly indicates an external factor. A DDoS attack overwhelms the service with excessive traffic, degrading response times without necessarily triggering internal error alerts. Cryptojacking, phishing, or human error would not typically cause immediate, widespread latency on the home page.
Question 13
A cloud engineer is implementing a deployment strategy with the following requirements:
• At least two environments for production and development must be supported.
• Changes in one environment must not impact the other environment.
• The highest possible availability must be achieved.
Which of the following deployment strategies should the engineer implement?
A. Rolling
B. Blue-green
C. In-place
D. Canary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blue-green deployments use two isolated, parallel environments (e.g., blue and green), allowing production and development separation with no cross-impact. Traffic can be switched instantly between environments, enabling zero-downtime releases, fast rollback, and the highest availability compared to rolling, in-place, or canary strategies.
Question 13
A company’s VMs that are created using the noncritical application tag are automatically shut down at 5:00 p.m. using a cronjob. Which of the following actions would allow a cloud engineer to stop all unresponsive instances with the least effort in case the automation fails?
A. Using the cloud audit logs for tagging and stopping events
B. Using the cloud provider web console to check and stop the instances
C. Using the cloud provider command line to stop the instances based on tags
D. Using a Bash script to shut down all instances
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Using the cloud provider’s command-line interface allows the engineer to quickly query all VM instances by the specific noncritical application tag and issue a single stop command across all matching resources. This is faster and requires less manual effort than using the web console, avoids writing or maintaining custom scripts, and is more actionable than reviewing audit logs, making it the most efficient option when automation fails.
Question 14
A cloud engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue. The application server with IP 192.168.1.10 in one subnet is not connecting to the MySQL database server with IP 192.168.2.20 in a different subnet. The cloud engineer reviews the following information:
Which of the following should the cloud engineer address to fix the communication issue?
A. The Application Server Stateful Firewall
B. The Application Server Subnet Routing Table
C. The MySQL Server Stateful Firewall
D. The MySQL Server Subnet Routing Table
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: For communication between different subnets, proper routing is required. If the application server subnet does not have a route to the 192.168.2.0/24 network, traffic will never reach the MySQL server regardless of firewall settings. Therefore, the application server subnet routing table must be corrected.
Question 14
A cloud infrastructure administrator updated the IP tables to block incoming connections and outgoing responses to 104.225.110.203. Which of the following vulnerability management steps is this an example of?
A. Scanning scope
B. Remediation
C. Identification
D. Assessment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Updating IP tables to block traffic from a specific IP address is an active step taken to mitigate a known threat. This corresponds to remediation, which involves implementing controls or fixes to reduce or eliminate identified vulnerabilities.
Question 15
A critical security patch is required on a network load balancer in a public cloud. The organization has a major sales conference next week, and the Chief Executive Officer does not want any interruptions during the demonstration of an application behind the load balancer. Which of the following approaches should the cloud security engineer take?
A. Ask the management team to delay the conference
B. Apply the security patch after the event
C. Ask the upper management team to approve an emergency patch window
D. Apply the security patch immediately before the conference
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A critical security patch must be addressed, but the application supports a high-visibility business event where downtime is unacceptable. Requesting upper management approval for an emergency patch window allows risk to be formally accepted and mitigated, ensures proper coordination, testing, and rollback planning, and balances security needs with business continuity. The other options either ignore business realities or introduce unnecessary risk.
Question 15
A systems administrator is provisioning VMs according to the following requirements:
A VM instance needs to be present in at least two data centers.
During replication, the application hosted on the VM tolerates a maximum latency of one second.
When a VM is unavailable, failover must be immediate.
Which of the following replication methods will best meet these requirements?
A. Snapshot
B. Transactional
C. Live
D. Point-in-time
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The requirements call for continuous availability across at least two data centers, a maximum replication latency of one second, and immediate failover. Live replication (synchronous or near‑real‑time replication) continuously mirrors VM state to another site, keeping a hot standby that can take over instantly. Snapshot or point‑in‑time replication introduce gaps between copies, and transactional replication is application/data‑level rather than full VM state, making them unsuitable for immediate failover.
$19
Get all 179 questions with detailed answers and explanations
Instant download HTML + PDF delivered the moment payment clears.
Secure Stripe checkout we never see or store your card details.
7-day refund if files are defective see our refund policy.