An organization is implementing a COPE mobile device management policy. Which of the following should the organization include in the COPE policy? (Choose two.)
A. Remote wiping of the device
B. Data encryption
C. Requiring passwords with eight characters
D. Data usage caps
E. Employee data ownership
F. Personal application store access
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A, B
Explanation: COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices are organization-owned and centrally managed. A COPE policy should include security controls that protect corporate data, including the ability to remotely wipe a lost, stolen, or decommissioned device and requiring device data encryption. Data usage caps are administrative rather than core COPE security controls, employee data ownership is a legal/privacy consideration rather than a standard MDM control in this context, personal app store access is typically restricted or managed rather than required, and a specific eight-character password requirement is too implementation-specific compared with the broader security controls.
Question 167
Which of the following techniques would attract the attention of a malicious attacker in an insider threat scenario?
A. Creating a false text file in /docs/salaries
B. Setting weak passwords in /etc/shadow
C. Scheduling vulnerable jobs in /etc/crontab
D. Adding a fake account to /etc/passwd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Creating a false file with an enticing name (a honeyfile/decoy) is a classic insider-threat detection technique. It is designed to attract unauthorized curiosity and generate alerts when accessed. The other options intentionally weaken the system or create real vulnerabilities rather than safely detecting malicious insider behavior.
Question 168
An organization is looking to optimize its environment and reduce the number of patches necessary for operating systems. Which of the following will best help to achieve this objective?
A. Microservices
B. Virtualization
C. Real-time operating system
D. Containers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Containers allow multiple applications to share a single host operating system kernel while remaining isolated. This reduces the number of full operating system instances that must be maintained and patched compared with deploying separate virtual machines. Microservices are an application architecture, virtualization typically increases the number of guest operating systems requiring patches, and a real-time operating system does not address patch reduction.
Question 169
A security architect wants to prevent employees from receiving malicious attachments by email. Which of the following functions should the chosen solution do?
A. Apply IP address reputation data.
B. Tap and monitor the email feed.
C. Scan email traffic inline.
D. Check SPF records.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct function is to scan email traffic inline so attachments can be inspected and blocked before delivery to users. IP reputation and SPF help identify suspicious senders or spoofing, but they do not inspect attachment content. Tapping and monitoring the email feed is passive monitoring rather than preventive blocking.
Question 170
Which of the following techniques can be used to sanitize the data contained on a hard drive while allowing for the hard drive to be repurposed?
A. Degaussing
B. Drive shredder
C. Retention platform
D. Wipe tool
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A wipe tool securely overwrites the data on the hard drive, sanitizing its contents while preserving the drive for future use. Degaussing renders many modern drives unusable or unreliable and is not appropriate if the goal is repurposing the drive. A drive shredder physically destroys the drive, and a retention platform is for data retention, not sanitization.
Question 171
An organization needs to monitor its users’ activities in order to prevent insider threats. Which of the following solutions would help the organization achieve this goal?
A. Behavioral analytics
B. Access control lists
C. Identity and access management
D. Network intrusion detection system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Behavioral analytics (often implemented as User and Entity Behavior Analytics, UEBA) monitors and analyzes user activity to detect anomalous behavior that may indicate insider threats. ACLs and IAM manage or restrict access but do not continuously analyze behavior for insider threat detection. A network intrusion detection system primarily detects malicious network activity, especially external or network-based threats, rather than user behavior.
Question 172
A penetration tester enters an office building at the same time as a group of employees despite not having an access badge. Which of the following attack types is the penetration tester performing?
A. Tailgating
B. Shoulder surfing
C. RFID cloning
D. Forgery
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The described scenario is tailgating: an unauthorized person gains entry to a restricted area by following authorized employees through a secured entrance without using their own access badge. Shoulder surfing involves observing someone enter sensitive information, RFID cloning involves copying a badge's RFID credentials, and forgery involves creating fake documents or credentials.
Question 173
A company plans to secure its systems by:
• Preventing users from sending sensitive data over corporate email
• Restricting access to potentially harmful websites
Which of the following features should the company set up? (Choose two.)
A. DLP software
B. DNS filtering
C. File integrity monitoring
D. Stateful firewall
E. Guardrails
F. Antivirus signatures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A, B
Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) software is designed to detect and prevent users from transmitting sensitive data through channels such as corporate email. DNS filtering restricts access to malicious or inappropriate websites by controlling DNS resolution. File integrity monitoring detects unauthorized file changes, stateful firewalls track network connections but do not specifically prevent sensitive email transmission or filter websites by DNS, guardrails are governance controls rather than the required security features here, and antivirus signatures detect known malware.
Question 174
A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Choose two.)
A. Private
B. Confidential
C. Public
D. Operational
E. Urgent
F. Restricted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B, F
Explanation: Government project information for a critical system would typically be classified as Confidential because unauthorized disclosure could cause significant harm, and Restricted because access should be limited to authorized personnel on a need-to-know basis. The other options are either not standard sensitivity classifications for this context (Operational, Urgent), too broad or inappropriate (Public), or generally refer to personal information rather than sensitive government project data (Private).
Question 175
Which of the following explains how to determine the global regulations that data is subject to regardless of the country where the data is stored?
A. Geographic dispersion
B. Data sovereignty
C. Geographic restrictions
D. Data segmentation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Data sovereignty is the principle that data is governed by the laws and regulations applicable to its jurisdiction, often based on where it is collected, processed, or associated, and in many regulatory regimes regardless of where it is physically stored. Geographic dispersion describes distribution of data, geographic restrictions are limits on access or movement, and data segmentation refers to separating data into categories, not determining applicable regulations.
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